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Barjon's method is based on the mean reverting historic correlation relationship between FTSE and DOW isn't it? While I agree that there being an inherent risk accepting element is obvious, I fail to see how it draws any parallels whatsoever with the method explained in the video. It's not information based for a start as he looks only at the statistical likelihood of normalisation of the 'relationship' based on nothing more than the 'gap' when that itself is inferred by a number of variables i.e. FX, flows, index composition, etc.
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